This is the sentences. It’s really long and complicated and I’m not native English speaker. The end is not clear for me and I don’t understand the parts about foreign law and award and etc.
Slade conceded, However, that if a foreign law were to provide for the
plaintiff to serve a notice specifying a sum claimed as damages, and
then for a default judgment to be entered for that sum without proof
or judicial assessment, such a procedure would usually be considered
unobjectionable, provided that, after due allowance had been made for
differences between the foreign law and English law in levels of award
and in substantive law, the amount of the actual award was not
irrational.
Answer
I think it means that where foreign courts are making an award for damages – they may do so – that process is acceptable – as long as the award is deemed to be ‘reasonable’ by the English court – presumably within the limits of what is considered ‘normal’ for such an award, in England.
I am not a lawyer and this is not legal advice – I am a native English speaker. Hope that helps!
Attribution
Source : Link , Question Author : Moradnejad , Answer Author : Jelila