Difference between “Let someone taste” and “Have someone taste”

I tried a new recipe for coming guests. After cooking I let my sister taste it. Can I also say, “I had my sister taste it”?

I don’t know the difference of these two sentences in terms of meaning. Is there a big difference? Which sentence is more appropriate?


In English, “have” is a very flexible word that can be used in a variety of contexts. I can have freckles on my face, I can have cake for dessert, and I can have a dead battery in my car. Furthermore, we can have parties, conversations, naps, arguments, elections, and children.

Getting back to your question, we can also have a taste of the soup.

There’s only a small difference in meaning between “let my sister taste it,” and “had my sister taste it,” although “let” carries a connotation of allow or permit, while “had” might imply a little insistence on your part. In other words, had she asked for a taste, and you said yes, then “let” might be a better word to use. However, if you weren’t sure the soup tasted satisfactory, so you wanted your sister to give a second opinion, then “had” might be a better word.

My sister thought the soup smelled delicious, so I let her taste it.

I thought the soup tasted funny, so I had my sister taste it.

Incidentally, yet another way to word this would be:

After cooking, I let my sister have a taste.

which combines both of those words, and would sound perfectly natural to a native speaker.

Source : Link , Question Author : tennis girl , Answer Author : Community

Leave a Comment