I am translating Aristotle’ Nicomachean ethics into Vietnamese from the English translation done by J. A. Smith (Project Gutenberg). In Book VII of the work I came across a sentence which has proven incomprehensible to me. That is
Now a man may raise a question as to the nature of the right
conception in violation of which a man fails of Self-Control.I’ve refered to other interpretations as well and now I’m clear of what this line means. However, I still need to be sure about the structure of this sentence. Is this a relative clause with “of which”? If so, what does “which” here replace?
Also, can somebody clarify the phrase “conception in violation”?
Answer
There should undoubtedly be a comma after conception, which would make it clearer that the clause from then onwards is a definition or explanation of the right conception.
(Expansion of Kris’s comment).
I also feel constrained to point out that if you are translating Aristotle, who is a founder of Western philosophy but whose language is not straightforward, you really need to do it from the Greek. Working from a Gutenberg translation into English risks falling into English As She Is Spoke.
Attribution
Source : Link , Question Author : El Niño , Answer Author : Tim Lymington