In 1395, why was “her” used instead of “their”?

Why was “her” used here?

Wycliffe Bible

In accordance with

“…brother, in a boot makynge nettis. 20 And anoon he clepide hem; and thei leften Zebedee, her fadir, in the boot with hiryd seruauntis, and thei suweden hym. And thei entriden”

I think, that “their” should be used instead.

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In Middle English, “her” means “their”. The Modern English “their” actually comes from Old Norse, while the equivalent (and predecessor) of Modern English “her” is “hire”.

Source : Link , Question Author : Anatoliy Sydorov , Answer Author : eyeballfrog

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