In 1395, why was “her” used instead of “their”?

Why was “her” used here?

Wycliffe Bible
Mk.1:20

In accordance with studylight.org:

“…brother, in a boot makynge nettis. 20 And anoon he clepide hem; and thei leften Zebedee, her fadir, in the boot with hiryd seruauntis, and thei suweden hym. And thei entriden”

I think, that “their” should be used instead.

Answer

In Middle English, “her” means “their”. The Modern English “their” actually comes from Old Norse, while the equivalent (and predecessor) of Modern English “her” is “hire”.

Attribution
Source : Link , Question Author : Anatoliy Sydorov , Answer Author : eyeballfrog