Is it wrong to use use contractions of have when not for the purpose of forming a past tense sentence?

For example, I believe the following to be acceptable:

“I’ve had no issues in the past with this client”

However, the following is what I’m unsure of:

“I’ve $16 in my bank account.”

I’ve definitely heard this before (though admittedly very rarely). Is this wrong? Or is it acceptable? If acceptable, is it considered to be informal? What dialect is this from primarily?


In British English, this is fine, but not very common: most people would say “I’ve got” or “I have”.

I believe this is true in the US as well, but I’m not sure: I think “I’ve got” is less favoured than “I have” there.

Source : Link , Question Author : Capn Jack , Answer Author : Colin Fine

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