Languages and their alphabet(s)

Why do we say English language has only one alphabet if English words (and as an extension sentences and phrases as well) can be written in alphabets of many other languages?

EDIT
Adding the requested clarification to the question.
Letters from alphabets of other languages can be strung together to form similar sounding English words. In essence, transliterated versions of Keats or Frost can be read (and understood) in any language provided the reader knows English.

Answer

At the querent’s request, I’ve taken my comments above and converted them to an answer, though I’m not convinced they should be:

A given language is conventionally written in only one alphabet* by its native speakers. This establishes the context for saying that it is “the alphabet” for the language. If another writing system has ways to express the same sounds, one can transliterate English–or any other language–into that language’s writing system; that doesn’t mean that the transliterated language thus has that writing system as an alphabet.

* There are exceptions: Japanese uses kanji and two sets of kana (three writing systems), Korean uses hangul and hanzi (two writing systems), Chinese uses ideographs and a phonetic script called Bopomofo (two writing systems) and there is at least one Slavic language that is written with either the Cyrillic or Roman/Latin alphabet depending on where the speaker is. The point here, though, is that transliteration does not mean that a language “has as an alphabet” the writing system used for the transliteration.

Attribution
Source : Link , Question Author : Vinny , Answer Author : Jeff Zeitlin

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