If it came yesterday he will surely have told her.
— The Cambridge Grammar of the English Language
When I saw “Call me in the morning and I’ll have selected your living quarters (Invisible Man)”, its perfect tense was quite understandable.
But the example does not differentiate from ‘If it came yesterday he will surely told her’. Is there semantic difference between the two? If yes, on what case can the one with perfect tense be used?
I’m not entirely sure I understand your question, but the sentences are grammatically the same.
Simplifying them down, you could write them like this:
He will have selected them
He will have told her
The second example you gave must have a mistake in it. It is not possible to say “he will surely told her”. You need to add ‘have’ to the sentence before ‘told’.
Some explanation can be found here: http://learnenglish.britishcouncil.org/en/english-grammar/verbs/modal-verbs/modals-have
Source : Link , Question Author : Listenever , Answer Author : fred2