The sentence sounds incorrect but comes from respectable book, please review and advise

Current social standards and a sense of morality in our culture have led to the rejection of prostitution. It has been cast it aside as a deviant behaviour by the prostitute and the client.
—The Contemporary Dictionary of Sexual Euphemisms, 1st ed., 2007

Please advise, is the second “it” in “It has been cast it aside” used correctly? Because it “feels” incorrect to me, I’d expect it omitted, as in “something has been cast aside by somebody”. Or maybe it was voice transcription and writer pronounced an incorrect past participle “casted” which got recognised into “cast” + “it”?

Thank you.


It’s an error. Probably an editing error: if the sentence was originally “We have cast it aside…” before being changed to passive voice, forgetting to delete the “it” is an easy mistake to make.

Source : Link , Question Author : revelt , Answer Author : Chris H

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