What did James V mean by “afferandly”?

In this letter from 1536, King James V of Scotland wrote in 1536:

Veilbelouit frend, we grete yow. Forsamekill as we ar of pourpas
to pas to Kelso, and to vesy owr Bordouris for ordoneng of the samyn
and for dunputting of sic thyngis as owr pour legis ar hurt hy : Heir-
for, we prey yow ry’cht afiectuusly that ye addres yow to be at ws in
Sterling with yowr honest howshald, rady and bodin in hors and geir,
to remane xx days, afferandly to yowr honor and ouris, the penult
day of Meii, to pas with ws, as ye will do ws singular plesowr. Gewin
at Sterling, the xxi day of Meii, and of owr regne xxiij yeir.

The King’s atrocious spelling notwithstanding :), what does the word afferandly mean above?

Is this just “some strange Scottish spelling” for something to do with “offering” something?

Has James’s afferandly been replaced with another word in contemporary English, or could afferandly still be used?

Would it be understood on both sides of Hadrian’s Wall, or only northwards?


The OED gives it as ‘appropriately, suitably’. Ultimately from afeir, and then from ‘Anglo-Norman and Middle French aferir, afferir, to appertain, to be appropriate, to be fitting.’

Source : Link , Question Author : tchrist , Answer Author : Barrie England

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