The following pairs of expressions seem to have the same meaning in general. The active group means "to persuade or force sb to do sth" in LONGMAN dictionary, and their passive version means "sth have been done". Are they actually different in terms of usage, style or meaning?
A:
have sb do / have sb doing / get sb doing
B:
have sth done / get sth done
Answer
X has Y done
is NOT a passive form; it is a perfect form. It specifies the actor, namely X, and further indicates that the action Y was completed prior to the time of utterance.
X has Z doing Y
means that X arranged in the past for Z to complete action Y in the future.
This is the causative usage of “have.”
So no, the two expressions do not have the same meaning.
Attribution
Source : Link , Question Author : ing , Answer Author : Jeff Morrow
