I understand that to have somebody do something for me means I ask them or command them to do that.
Is there a slight difference in the meaning if "I get them to do something"? Is there a difference if I omit the "to" as in "to get somebody do something"?
Answer
I’ll have him call you.
suggests that the speaker is i a position to give orders to "him". In contrast
I’ll get him to call you.
might suggest more persuasion than an order, but this difference is a subtle one.
I am not sure what "to" you are thinking of omitting. The first sentence "I’ll have him call you." does not include a "to" and none has been omitted. The second includes a "to" and it may not validly be left out.
Attribution
Source : Link , Question Author : Ra. , Answer Author : David Siegel
