In Cambridge Advanced Learner’s Dictionary 3rd ed., one of the usage examples given for the entry much is:
One day I hope I’ll be able to do as much for you as you’ve done for me.
Is the meaning still the same if I move the prepositional phrase for you just before the expression as much as?
One day I hope I’ll be able to do for you as much as you’ve done for me.
Answer
They both have the same meaning. Let’s simplify by replacing the noun phrase with a noun, and trimming away some of the clauses of the sentence.
I will do a favour for you.
I will do for you a favour.
Both of those are grammatically valid, and have the same meaning. The first sounds more natural, and is what most native speakers would say. The second is a valid form that you might find in a poem, folk song, old writing, or someone deliberately speaking/writing in that manner.
Attribution
Source : Link , Question Author : Sherlock , Answer Author : slim
